What, then, is _their_, in the phrase, "their faith?" Is
it not obvious, that, if _them_ is a personal pronoun, _their_ must
be, also? for the latter represents the same noun as the former.
Objections to this method of treating these pronouns, will doubtless
be preferred by those who assert, that a noun is understood after
these words, and not represented by them. But this is assertion
without proof; for, if a noun were understood, it might be supplied.
If the question be put, whose book? and the answer be, _mine, ours,
hers_, or _theirs_, the word book is included in such answer. Were
it not included, we might supply it, thus, mine _book_, ours _book_,
hers _book_, and so on. This, however, we cannot do, for it would be
giving a _double_ answer: but when the question is answered by a
noun in the possessive case, the word book is not included, but
implied; as, Whose book? John's, Richard's; that is, John's _book_;
Richard's _book_.
This view of the subject, without a parallel, except in the
compounds _what, whoever_, and _others_, is respectfully submitted
to the public; believing, that those who approve of a critical
analysis of words, will coincide with me.
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