And what can be the
reason of this? Can it be, because Prelacy, and the civil places and
power of churchmen, were, by the explication and application of the
covenant, _anno_ 1638, expressly and explicitly condemned, while they
were formerly only implicitly, and by way of consequence? So they have
at least, by this step back, both tacitly condemned our reformers, of
giving themselves needless trouble in their explanation of the covenant,
as condemning and abjuring Episcopacy; and also, do overlook, despise,
and disgracefully bury the many advanced steps of reformation attained
to in these covenanted lands between 1638 and 1649 (particularly the
church of _Scotland's_ testimony against Prelacy) in which time
reformation arrived to a greater height of purity than ever was attained
in any foregoing period of this church and nation. However, whatever
their reasons were for so doing, that they have so done is clear, from
their act _Edinburgh, February_ 3d, 1743, where they conclude with a
_nota bene_, lest it should not otherwise have been observed that they
do so, and thereby declare their sin as _Sodom_, as if the publishing of
it would make an atonement for it.
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